In Joseph Smith's 1832 account he states that before the First Vision took place he was of the opinion that “mankind . . . had apostatized from the true and living faith, and there was no society or denomination that built upon the gospel of Jesus Christ as recorded in the New Testament.” When the Prophet saw the Savior during the First Vision experience Jesus verified what Joseph previously had believed. There are at least a dozen written recollections of people remembering Joseph speak of a new dispensation.
Did Joseph mention a new dispensation in the 1832 account? No. Is the 1832 account about a new dispensation consistent with other contemporary records? Yes. The only rational conclusion is that he simply omitted that detail in the written account, although he made that point on at least a dozen other occasions. The charge that his "story evolved over time" is false relative to this detail.
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